1. The problem asks for the probability of exactly 1 success in a binomial distribution with $n=6$ trials and probability of success $p=0.80$. 2. The binomial probability formula is: $$P(X = x) = \binom{n}{x} p^x (1-p)^{n-x}$$ where $\binom{n}{x}$ is the number of combinations of $n$ items taken $x$ at a time. 3. Here, $x=1$, $n=6$, and $p=0.80$. So, $$P(X=1) = \binom{6}{1} (0.80)^1 (1-0.80)^{6-1} = 6 \times 0.80 \times 0.20^5$$ 4. Calculate $0.20^5$: $$0.20^5 = 0.00032$$ 5. Multiply all terms: $$6 \times 0.80 \times 0.00032 = 6 \times 0.000256 = 0.001536$$ 6. Rounded to three decimal places, the probability is: $$P(X=1) = 0.002$$ This matches the value given in the binomial probability table. Final answer: $\boxed{0.002}$